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Network Engineer Interview Questions

Think you're ready? These are the questions that actually decide Network Engineer interviews. Warm up on Easy — then face the Hard round, where 95% of candidates crumble. 80 questions across 3 levels, instant score, completely free.

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The Network Engineer interview questions

Below are the real questions, grouped by difficulty. Expand any one to reveal the correct answer and why — or take the timed quiz for a score you can share. Can you clear the Hard round?

Easy round 20 questions

A host is configured with IP 192.168.1.10/24 and wants to reach 192.168.2.50. What happens?
  • A. It ARPs directly for 192.168.2.50 on the local segment
  • B. It sends the packet to its default gateway because the destination is on a different subnet ✓
  • C. The packet is dropped as invalid
  • D. It broadcasts to 192.168.1.255
Correct answer: B. With a /24 mask the destination is off-subnet, so the host forwards it to the default gateway.
Two PCs are connected to the same switch but can't ping each other; both are 10.0.0.5/24 and 10.0.1.5/24. Why?
  • A. The switch is broken
  • B. They're in different subnets and need a router/L3 device to communicate ✓
  • C. The cable is crossover
  • D. ICMP is disabled by default on switches
Correct answer: B. Different subnets require Layer 3 routing even if the hosts share a Layer 2 switch.
You assign a device the address 192.168.10.0/24 as its host IP. What's the problem?
  • A. It's a valid host address
  • B. 192.168.10.0 is the network address of that subnet, not a usable host address ✓
  • C. It's the broadcast address
  • D. The subnet mask is invalid
Correct answer: B. The all-zeros host portion identifies the network itself and cannot be assigned to a host.
A /27 subnet is used for a point-to-point link between two routers. How many addresses are wasted for host use?
  • A. None, all 32 are usable
  • B. 28 usable hosts remain unused since only 2 are needed ✓
  • C. The link won't work on a /27
  • D. 16 addresses are wasted
Correct answer: B. A /27 gives 30 usable hosts; a P2P link needs only 2, so 28 are unused (a /30 or /31 fits better).
A user reports they can reach sites by IP but not by name. Which service should you check first?
  • A. DHCP
  • B. DNS resolution ✓
  • C. STP
  • D. The default gateway
Correct answer: B. Working by IP but not by name isolates the fault to name resolution (DNS).
You configure a switch port with 'switchport mode access' and 'switchport access vlan 20.' A device plugged in gets no VLAN 20 connectivity. What's a likely cause?
  • A. VLAN 20 doesn't exist or isn't active on the switch ✓
  • B. The port is too fast
  • C. Access ports can't carry a VLAN
  • D. The device needs a static route
Correct answer: A. An access port assigned to a VLAN that isn't created/active won't pass traffic for it.
A trunk between two switches carries VLANs 10 and 20, but VLAN 20 traffic doesn't pass while VLAN 10 works. What should you check?
  • A. The speed of the trunk
  • B. Whether VLAN 20 is in the trunk's allowed VLAN list ✓
  • C. The default gateway of VLAN 10
  • D. The spanning-tree root bridge
Correct answer: B. A trunk's allowed-VLAN list can prune VLAN 20 while permitting VLAN 10.
A DHCP client boots and receives no address; the DHCP server is on a different subnet. What's the most likely fix?
  • A. Configure an IP helper-address (DHCP relay) on the client's gateway interface ✓
  • B. Restart the client's NIC
  • C. Change the client to half duplex
  • D. Add a static ARP entry
Correct answer: A. DHCP discovers are broadcasts that don't cross subnets, so a relay/helper-address is needed.
You see interface counters incrementing 'CRC errors' and 'runts' on a link. What does this most likely point to?
  • A. A routing loop
  • B. A physical layer issue such as bad cable, connector, or duplex mismatch ✓
  • C. A DNS failure
  • D. An ACL blocking traffic
Correct answer: B. CRC and runt errors are physical/data-link symptoms, commonly cabling or duplex mismatch.
A link shows one side at full duplex and the other at half duplex. What symptom would you expect?
  • A. Perfect performance
  • B. Late collisions and poor throughput on the link ✓
  • C. The link won't come up at all
  • D. Automatic VLAN assignment
Correct answer: B. A duplex mismatch produces late collisions and degraded throughput even though the link is 'up.'
Given routes to 10.1.1.0/24 via OSPF and 10.1.1.0/24 via a static route, which does the router install by default?
  • A. OSPF, because it's dynamic
  • B. The static route, because it has a lower administrative distance ✓
  • C. Both, load-balanced
  • D. Neither, it's a conflict
Correct answer: B. Static routes (AD 1) are preferred over OSPF (AD 110) when prefixes are equal.
A router has two routes to a destination: 10.0.0.0/8 and 10.5.5.0/24. A packet is destined for 10.5.5.7. Which route is used?
  • A. 10.0.0.0/8 because it appears first
  • B. 10.5.5.0/24 because it's the longest prefix match ✓
  • C. Both simultaneously
  • D. Neither, the packet is dropped
Correct answer: B. Routers forward using the most specific (longest prefix) matching route.
You ping a remote host and get 'Request timed out,' but traceroute reaches the router just before it. What does this suggest?
  • A. DNS is misconfigured
  • B. The problem is at or beyond that last-reachable hop, e.g. the destination or a firewall ✓
  • C. Your NIC is disabled
  • D. The subnet mask is wrong on your PC
Correct answer: B. Traceroute stopping at a hop localizes the fault to that hop's next segment or destination.
A spanning-tree topology change causes a broadcast storm after someone connected two switch ports together with a loop. What is STP supposed to do?
  • A. Increase bandwidth on all ports
  • B. Block one redundant path to prevent Layer 2 loops ✓
  • C. Assign IP addresses
  • D. Encrypt the traffic
Correct answer: B. STP prevents loops by placing redundant ports into a blocking state.
You need to allow web traffic through a firewall. Which port/protocol pair must you permit for standard HTTPS?
  • A. TCP 22
  • B. TCP 443 ✓
  • C. UDP 53
  • D. TCP 25
Correct answer: B. HTTPS uses TCP port 443; 22 is SSH, 53 is DNS, 25 is SMTP.
An ACL on a router has an explicit permit for 10.1.1.0/24 and nothing else. A packet from 10.2.2.5 arrives. What happens?
  • A. It's permitted by default
  • B. It's denied by the implicit deny at the end of the ACL ✓
  • C. It's logged and permitted
  • D. It causes an ACL error
Correct answer: B. ACLs end with an implicit deny, so traffic not matching a permit is dropped.
A NAT-configured router lets 50 internal private IPs share one public IP for internet access. Which NAT type is this?
  • A. Static one-to-one NAT
  • B. PAT (NAT overload) using port translation ✓
  • C. No NAT is possible with one public IP
  • D. DNS-based NAT
Correct answer: B. Many-to-one sharing of a single public IP is PAT/NAT overload, distinguished by port numbers.
Users on VLAN 10 can't reach the internet, but intra-VLAN traffic works. What's the most likely missing piece?
  • A. A Layer 3 gateway/routing (SVI or router interface) for VLAN 10 ✓
  • B. A faster switch
  • C. More VLANs
  • D. A crossover cable
Correct answer: A. Intra-VLAN works at L2, but leaving the VLAN needs a routed gateway for that subnet.
You configure OSPF on two routers but they never form an adjacency; one is in area 0 and the other in area 1 on the same link. What's wrong?
  • A. OSPF requires the same speed
  • B. Neighbors on a link must be in the same OSPF area to become adjacent ✓
  • C. They need different router IDs only
  • D. Area numbers don't matter
Correct answer: B. OSPF neighbors on a common segment must share the same area ID to form an adjacency.
A server needs to reach the internet, but only DNS lookups fail while pings to public IPs succeed. Which port is most likely being blocked?
  • A. TCP/UDP 53 ✓
  • B. TCP 80
  • C. TCP 443
  • D. UDP 123
Correct answer: A. DNS uses port 53; blocking it breaks name resolution while ICMP to IPs still works.

Medium round 30 questions

A host is configured with IP address 192.168.10.130/26. What is the network address of the subnet this host belongs to?
  • A. 192.168.10.0
  • B. 192.168.10.64
  • C. 192.168.10.128 ✓
  • D. 192.168.10.192
Correct answer: C. A /26 mask (255.255.255.192) creates subnets in blocks of 64, so 192.168.10.130 falls in the 192.168.10.128–191 range with a network address of 192.168.10.128.
A user reports they can reach websites by IP address but not by domain name. Which service is the most likely cause?
  • A. DHCP
  • B. DNS ✓
  • C. NAT
  • D. ARP
Correct answer: B. Being able to reach sites by IP but not by name indicates name resolution is failing, which is the job of DNS.
On a Cisco switch, you want an access port to immediately transition to forwarding for end devices while still protecting against accidental loops from another switch. Which combination is best practice?
  • A. PortFast with BPDU Guard ✓
  • B. Root Guard with UDLD
  • C. PortFast with Root Guard
  • D. BPDU Filter with Loop Guard
Correct answer: A. PortFast skips STP listening/learning for fast access-port convergence, and BPDU Guard err-disables the port if a switch (BPDU) is connected, preventing loops.
Which statement correctly describes the difference between TCP and UDP?
  • A. TCP is connectionless and UDP is connection-oriented
  • B. TCP provides guaranteed, ordered delivery with acknowledgments while UDP does not ✓
  • C. UDP guarantees delivery but TCP does not
  • D. TCP has lower overhead and latency than UDP
Correct answer: B. TCP is connection-oriented and provides reliable, ordered delivery via acknowledgments and retransmission, whereas UDP is connectionless with no delivery guarantees.
A VLAN 20 exists on two switches connected by a single link. Users in VLAN 20 on switch A cannot reach VLAN 20 users on switch B, though same-switch traffic works. What is the most likely issue?
  • A. The inter-switch link is an access port instead of a trunk carrying VLAN 20 ✓
  • B. VLAN 20 needs a separate default gateway on each switch
  • C. Spanning tree is disabled on VLAN 20
  • D. The hosts are using different subnet masks
Correct answer: A. Carrying multiple VLANs between switches requires a trunk link; if the interconnect is an access port, VLAN 20 tagged traffic won't pass between switches.
You run 'traceroute' to a remote host and see the first several hops respond, then all remaining hops show only asterisks (* * *) but the destination is actually reachable via other tests. What is the most common benign explanation?
  • A. The destination host is powered off
  • B. A device along the path is filtering/rate-limiting ICMP or the returning TTL-exceeded messages ✓
  • C. The local DNS server is down
  • D. The route has a loop causing infinite hops
Correct answer: B. Asterisks commonly appear when intermediate devices are configured to not respond to or rate-limit the ICMP/UDP probes or TTL-exceeded replies, even though traffic still forwards normally.
Which of the following is a private IPv4 address range as defined by RFC 1918?
  • A. 169.254.0.0/16
  • B. 172.16.0.0/12 ✓
  • C. 192.0.2.0/24
  • D. 198.51.100.0/24
Correct answer: B. 172.16.0.0/12 (172.16.0.0–172.31.255.255) is one of the three RFC 1918 private ranges; 169.254.0.0/16 is link-local and the others are documentation ranges.
Two devices on the same subnet cannot ping each other, but each can ping its own IP. Pinging the peer's IP populates the ARP table with an 'incomplete' entry. What does this most likely indicate?
  • A. A DNS misconfiguration
  • B. A Layer 2 connectivity problem (e.g., wrong VLAN, bad cable, or filtering) preventing ARP replies ✓
  • C. The default gateway is unreachable
  • D. A duplicate IP address on the subnet
Correct answer: B. An incomplete ARP entry means the ARP request went out but no reply returned, pointing to a Layer 2 reachability problem such as a VLAN mismatch, cabling, or port filtering.
In OSPF, what is the primary purpose of an area (such as area 0)?
  • A. To encrypt routing updates between neighbors
  • B. To limit the scope of link-state flooding and SPF recalculation for scalability ✓
  • C. To assign administrative distance to routes
  • D. To perform NAT between routing domains
Correct answer: B. OSPF areas segment the topology so link-state advertisements are flooded and SPF is recalculated within an area, improving scalability and reducing overhead.
A client boots up and receives an IP in the 169.254.x.x range with a 255.255.0.0 mask. What has most likely happened?
  • A. It was assigned a valid public IP by the ISP
  • B. It failed to reach a DHCP server and self-assigned an APIPA/link-local address ✓
  • C. It received a static IP from the administrator
  • D. Its subnet mask was misconfigured manually
Correct answer: B. A 169.254.x.x address is APIPA (link-local), automatically self-assigned when a DHCP client cannot obtain a lease from a DHCP server.
How many usable host addresses are in a /27 subnet?
  • A. 30 ✓
  • B. 32
  • C. 62
  • D. 14
Correct answer: A. A /27 has 32 addresses total, minus network and broadcast, leaving 30 usable hosts.
In OSPF, how is the router ID chosen when not manually configured?
  • A. The lowest MAC address
  • B. The highest loopback IP, or else the highest active interface IP ✓
  • C. The device serial number
  • D. The lowest interface IP
Correct answer: B. OSPF picks the highest loopback IP if present, otherwise the highest active interface IP.
In classic 802.1D STP, which port state populates the MAC address table but does not yet forward user frames?
  • A. Forwarding
  • B. Listening
  • C. Learning ✓
  • D. Blocking
Correct answer: C. In the Learning state a port builds its MAC table but still does not forward user frames.
What is the default administrative distance of eBGP routes on Cisco IOS?
  • A. 20 ✓
  • B. 110
  • C. 90
  • D. 200
Correct answer: A. eBGP has an administrative distance of 20 on Cisco IOS (iBGP is 200).
Two hosts on the same up/up VLAN cannot ping each other. Which is a plausible cause?
  • A. A missing default gateway
  • B. Incorrect subnet mask placing the IPs in different subnets ✓
  • C. A wrong DNS server address
  • D. A BGP misconfiguration
Correct answer: B. A wrong mask can put same-VLAN hosts in different logical subnets, breaking direct pings; gateway/DNS are irrelevant for same-subnet ICMP.
What is the valid VLAN ID range under standard 802.1Q?
  • A. 0 to 1023
  • B. 1 to 4094 ✓
  • C. 1 to 8192
  • D. 1 to 255
Correct answer: B. 802.1Q uses a 12-bit VLAN ID; 1–4094 are usable (0 and 4095 are reserved).
In NAT overload (PAT), how are multiple internal hosts sharing one public IP distinguished?
  • A. By different MAC addresses
  • B. By different source port numbers ✓
  • C. By different VLAN tags
  • D. By different TTL values
Correct answer: B. PAT multiplexes many inside hosts onto one public IP using unique translated source ports.
Which routing protocol uses the DUAL algorithm and maintains successors and feasible successors?
  • A. OSPF
  • B. EIGRP ✓
  • C. RIP
  • D. BGP
Correct answer: B. EIGRP uses DUAL and tracks successors and feasible successors for loop-free backup paths.
On an 802.1Q trunk, frames belonging to the native VLAN are, by default:
  • A. Tagged with VLAN 1 always
  • B. Sent untagged ✓
  • C. Dropped at the trunk
  • D. Encrypted
Correct answer: B. By default the native VLAN's frames traverse an 802.1Q trunk untagged.
What is the primary function of HSRP or VRRP?
  • A. Load balancing traffic across access switches
  • B. First-hop gateway redundancy via a shared virtual IP ✓
  • C. Spanning-tree loop prevention
  • D. Dynamic routing between autonomous systems
Correct answer: B. HSRP/VRRP provide first-hop redundancy by sharing a virtual gateway IP between routers.
How many usable host addresses does a /26 subnet provide?
  • A. 30
  • B. 62 ✓
  • C. 126
  • D. 254
Correct answer: B. A /26 leaves 6 host bits: 2^6 − 2 = 62 usable addresses.
OSPF is which type of routing protocol?
  • A. Distance-vector
  • B. Link-state ✓
  • C. Path-vector
  • D. Static
Correct answer: B. OSPF is a link-state protocol; each router builds a full topology map via LSAs and runs SPF.
The primary purpose of a VLAN is to?
  • A. Encrypt Ethernet frames
  • B. Segment a switch into separate broadcast domains ✓
  • C. Increase physical link speed
  • D. Assign IP addresses to hosts
Correct answer: B. A VLAN logically partitions a switch into isolated broadcast domains.
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily prevents?
  • A. IP address conflicts
  • B. Layer 2 switching loops ✓
  • C. Routing loops at Layer 3
  • D. DNS cache poisoning
Correct answer: B. STP blocks redundant paths to prevent bridging loops and broadcast storms at Layer 2.
PAT (Port Address Translation) allows?
  • A. Many private IPs to share one public IP using port numbers ✓
  • B. Exactly one private IP per public IP
  • C. Routing between VLANs
  • D. Encryption of translated traffic
Correct answer: A. PAT (NAT overload) multiplexes many inside hosts onto one public IP by tracking port numbers.
How many usable host addresses does a /30 subnet provide?
  • A. 1
  • B. 2 ✓
  • C. 4
  • D. 6
Correct answer: B. A /30 has 2 host bits: 2^2 − 2 = 2 usable addresses, ideal for point-to-point links.
What is the correct DHCP address-assignment sequence?
  • A. Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledge ✓
  • B. Request, Reply, Confirm, Close
  • C. Sync, Ack, Fin, Reset
  • D. Offer, Discover, Ack, Request
Correct answer: A. DHCP follows the DORA process: Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledge.
The IEEE 802.1Q standard defines?
  • A. VLAN tagging on trunk links ✓
  • B. Wireless encryption
  • C. Link aggregation bundling
  • D. Spanning tree convergence
Correct answer: A. 802.1Q inserts a VLAN tag into the Ethernet frame to carry multiple VLANs over a trunk.
A router receives a packet with TTL=1. What happens?
  • A. It decrements TTL to 0, drops the packet, and sends ICMP Time Exceeded ✓
  • B. It forwards the packet normally
  • C. It increments the TTL
  • D. It buffers the packet until TTL rises
Correct answer: A. TTL is decremented to 0, the packet is discarded, and an ICMP Time Exceeded is returned.
traceroute typically discovers the path by?
  • A. Sending packets with incrementing TTL values ✓
  • B. Flooding ARP requests
  • C. Repeatedly querying DNS
  • D. Broadcasting DHCP Discovers
Correct answer: A. traceroute increments TTL so each hop in turn returns an ICMP Time Exceeded, revealing the route.

Hard round 30 questions

Two routers receive the same prefix 203.0.113.0/24 via eBGP. Router A learns it with LOCAL_PREF 100, AS_PATH length 2, MED 50; Router B learns it with LOCAL_PREF 100, AS_PATH length 3, MED 10. Both paths have identical weight (0) and no route-map sets weight. Which path is installed and why?
  • A. Router B's path, because its MED of 10 is lower and MED is compared before AS_PATH
  • B. Router A's path, because AS_PATH length 2 is shorter and AS_PATH is compared before MED ✓
  • C. Router B's path, because a shorter MED always overrides a longer AS_PATH in eBGP
  • D. Neither; BGP load-balances because LOCAL_PREF is tied
Correct answer: B. In the best-path algorithm AS_PATH length is evaluated well before MED, so the shorter AS_PATH (Router A) wins regardless of the lower MED.
A GRE-over-IPsec tunnel carries traffic fine for SSH and ping, but large HTTPS file downloads stall intermittently and TCP sessions hang. The physical path MTU is 1500 and ICMP 'fragmentation needed' messages are being dropped by an intermediate firewall. What is the most surgical fix on the tunnel routers?
  • A. Set 'ip tcp adjust-mss 1360' on the tunnel interfaces so the TCP handshake negotiates a smaller MSS ✓
  • B. Increase the tunnel interface MTU to 1500 to match the physical path
  • C. Enable 'ip route-cache' fast switching on the tunnel to speed up fragmentation
  • D. Disable PMTUD globally with 'no ip pmtu' so hosts stop sending DF-bit packets
Correct answer: A. Clamping MSS forces endpoints to negotiate a segment size that fits the reduced tunnel MTU, sidestepping the PMTUD black hole caused by the firewall dropping ICMP.
In an OSPF network you configure an area as totally stubby (area 10 stub no-summary on the ABR). A device inside area 10 needs to reach an external route redistributed from BGP elsewhere in the domain. How does routing to that external destination work from inside area 10?
  • A. It fails because totally stubby areas drop all traffic to external destinations
  • B. The ABR floods the Type 5 LSA into the area so the internal router has a specific route
  • C. The internal router follows the single default route (Type 3) injected by the ABR toward the ABR ✓
  • D. The internal router uses a Type 7 LSA translated into a Type 5 by the ABR
Correct answer: C. Totally stubby areas block Type 3, 4, and 5 LSAs and instead inject a single default route, so internal routers reach any external destination via that default toward the ABR.
During mutual redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP at two boundary routers, a route native to OSPF is redistributed into EIGRP at Router X, then re-redistributed back into OSPF at Router Y with a better metric than the original. What is the classic consequence and the standard prevention?
  • A. A routing loop or suboptimal path forms; prevent it by tagging routes on redistribution and filtering tagged routes from being redistributed back ✓
  • B. BGP synchronization kicks in; prevent it by disabling synchronization
  • C. OSPF SPF fails to converge; prevent it by raising the OSPF reference bandwidth
  • D. EIGRP goes stuck-in-active; prevent it by enabling stub routing on Router Y
Correct answer: A. Re-injecting a route back into its origin protocol with an artificially attractive metric creates loops/suboptimal paths, and route tags plus filtering are the canonical guard.
A BGP prefix is present in 'show ip bgp' marked valid but is NOT installed in the RIB and not advertised to peers. LOCAL_PREF and AS_PATH look fine. The most likely single cause is:
  • A. The prefix has a lower weight than a competing static route
  • B. The BGP next-hop is not reachable in the IGP/RIB, so the path is not marked best ✓
  • C. The neighbor is configured as a route reflector client
  • D. MED is set higher than the neighbor's advertised MED
Correct answer: B. BGP requires a resolvable next-hop; if next-hop reachability fails the path stays valid-but-not-best and is neither installed nor advertised.
Two data centers run an EVPN-VXLAN fabric with iBGP EVPN peering to route reflectors. A VM moves from leaf-1 to leaf-3. Which EVPN route type and mechanism ensures remote VTEPs update their forwarding for the moved MAC quickly?
  • A. Type 5 (IP prefix) route withdrawal triggers underlay reconvergence
  • B. Type 2 (MAC/IP advertisement) route with a higher MAC Mobility sequence number supersedes the old advertisement ✓
  • C. Type 3 (inclusive multicast) route re-election of the designated forwarder
  • D. Type 4 (Ethernet segment) route re-runs the DF election for the ESI
Correct answer: B. MAC mobility is signaled by a new Type 2 route carrying an incremented MAC Mobility Extended Community sequence number, which remote VTEPs prefer over the stale entry.
A stateful firewall sits between two routed segments. Users report that some flows work and others reset randomly. You discover the forward path traverses the firewall but the return path takes a different link that bypasses it, due to redistribution creating an equal-cost alternate. This is asymmetric routing. The cleanest structural fix is:
  • A. Enable the firewall's asymmetric-routing/loose-state mode and call it done
  • B. Lower the TCP keepalive timers on end hosts to survive the resets
  • C. Adjust routing (via metrics, filtering, or summarization) so forward and return traffic are symmetric through the firewall ✓
  • D. Disable connection tracking on the firewall so it forwards statelessly
Correct answer: C. Stateful inspection requires both directions to pass the same firewall, so the structural fix is to engineer symmetric routing rather than weaken the firewall's state enforcement.
You run 'show spanning-tree' and see a port in a designated-blocking state flapping under load, with intermittent unicast flooding of established flows. CAM/MAC aging is 300s but the STP topology-change-driven fast-aging (15s) keeps firing. What root cause best explains the flooding?
  • A. IGMP snooping is disabled, flooding multicast to all ports
  • B. Frequent STP topology changes shorten MAC aging so entries expire before refresh, causing unknown-unicast flooding ✓
  • C. The port is misconfigured as an access port in the wrong VLAN
  • D. LACP hashing is sending both directions of a flow down different member links
Correct answer: B. TCN-driven fast aging (15s) purges MAC entries faster than bidirectional traffic refreshes them, so the switch floods unknown unicast until it relearns.
In EIGRP DUAL, a router loses its successor for a route. It has a feasible successor whose reported distance is LESS than the router's current feasible distance. What happens?
  • A. The router sends a query to all neighbors and goes active on the route
  • B. The router installs the feasible successor immediately without going active, achieving fast local convergence ✓
  • C. The route goes stuck-in-active because the feasibility condition failed
  • D. DUAL recomputes the entire topology table via a full diffusing computation
Correct answer: B. A feasible successor satisfies the feasibility condition (RD < FD), so DUAL promotes it locally without a diffusing computation, avoiding the active state.
An MPLS L3VPN customer at two sites should reach each other but NOT a third site in the same VPN. All PEs import/export route-target 100:1. What is the correct way to enforce the hub-and-spoke-style isolation without new VRFs on the CE side?
  • A. Change the route distinguishers so the prefixes look unique
  • B. Assign distinct import/export route-target policies per VRF so only intended sites import each other's routes ✓
  • C. Filter with an outbound prefix-list on the PE-CE eBGP session only
  • D. Disable penultimate-hop popping on the P routers between the sites
Correct answer: B. Route targets (not RDs) govern which VRFs import which VPN routes, so tailoring import/export RT policy is how you build selective connectivity like hub-and-spoke.
In Cisco BGP best-path selection, immediately after Local Preference, the next tiebreaker considered is:
  • A. AS_PATH length
  • B. Prefer the route originated by the local router (network/redistribute/aggregate) ✓
  • C. MED
  • D. Origin code
Correct answer: B. Cisco's order is Weight, Local Preference, then prefer locally originated routes, and only then AS_PATH length.
A /31 prefix (RFC 3021) is intended for:
  • A. Broadcast domains with 30 hosts
  • B. Point-to-point links using both addresses with no network/broadcast reservation ✓
  • C. Loopback interfaces only
  • D. Multicast group ranges
Correct answer: B. RFC 3021 lets a /31 use both addresses on a point-to-point link, eliminating the wasted network/broadcast pair.
On a broadcast OSPF network, non-DR/BDR routers (DROTHERs) remain in which adjacency state with one another?
  • A. FULL
  • B. 2-WAY ✓
  • C. EXSTART
  • D. INIT
Correct answer: B. DROTHERs stay in 2-WAY with each other and only reach FULL with the DR and BDR.
The TCP window scaling option (RFC 7323) exists primarily to:
  • A. Encrypt the TCP payload
  • B. Allow window sizes beyond 65,535 bytes on high bandwidth-delay-product links ✓
  • C. Reduce the negotiated MSS
  • D. Disable congestion control
Correct answer: B. Window scaling extends the 16-bit window field so throughput can scale on high bandwidth-delay paths.
Asymmetric routing can break stateful firewalls mainly because:
  • A. TTL expires prematurely
  • B. Return traffic takes a different path and bypasses the firewall holding the session state ✓
  • C. MTU changes mid-path
  • D. ARP tables overflow
Correct answer: B. If return traffic misses the firewall that built the session state, the stateful device drops it as unsolicited.
Large packets are silently dropped when ICMP 'fragmentation needed' messages are filtered. This condition is called:
  • A. TCP global synchronization
  • B. A Path MTU Discovery black hole ✓
  • C. Split-horizon failure
  • D. ARP cache poisoning
Correct answer: B. Blocking the needed ICMP messages breaks PMTUD, causing oversized packets to be black-holed.
In MPLS, when the second-to-last router removes the label so the egress LSR only does an IP lookup, this is:
  • A. Label stacking
  • B. Penultimate Hop Popping (PHP) ✓
  • C. Label swapping
  • D. Route reflection
Correct answer: B. PHP pops the outer label at the penultimate hop so the egress LER avoids a double lookup.
VXLAN extends Layer 2 over Layer 3 using a 24-bit VNI. This yields how many segments and uses which encapsulation port?
  • A. 4094 segments, TCP 179
  • B. About 16 million segments, UDP 4789 ✓
  • C. 65,535 segments, UDP 500
  • D. 1024 segments, GRE
Correct answer: B. A 24-bit VNI gives ~16 million segments, and VXLAN encapsulates in UDP with default destination port 4789.
Which distance-vector loop-prevention mechanism stops a router from advertising a route back out the interface on which it was learned?
  • A. Route summarization
  • B. Split horizon ✓
  • C. Route reflection
  • D. Equal-cost multipath
Correct answer: B. Split horizon suppresses advertising a route back toward the neighbor it was learned from.
TCP incast throughput collapse in data centers occurs when:
  • A. A single flow saturates a WAN link
  • B. Many synchronized senders overflow a shallow switch buffer toward one receiver, collapsing throughput ✓
  • C. BGP sessions flap repeatedly
  • D. DNS resolution becomes slow
Correct answer: B. Incast happens when many synchronized senders overrun a shallow buffer to one receiver, triggering drops, retransmit timeouts, and throughput collapse.
On an OSPF broadcast segment, the DR/BDR election is decided by?
  • A. Highest OSPF interface priority, tie-broken by highest Router ID ✓
  • B. Lowest MAC address on the segment
  • C. Highest IP TTL value
  • D. Lowest interface bandwidth
Correct answer: A. OSPF picks the DR by highest priority; a priority of 0 opts out, and ties break on highest Router ID.
In STP, the root bridge is elected based on?
  • A. Lowest Bridge ID (priority plus MAC address) ✓
  • B. Highest MAC address
  • C. Fastest uplink port
  • D. Lowest management IP address
Correct answer: A. The switch with the lowest Bridge ID (priority then MAC) becomes the root bridge.
In Cisco BGP best-path selection, which attribute is evaluated FIRST?
  • A. Weight (highest preferred) ✓
  • B. MED (lowest preferred)
  • C. AS-path (shortest preferred)
  • D. Origin code
Correct answer: A. Cisco's algorithm checks Weight first (highest wins), before Local Preference and AS-path.
IPv4 fragmentation occurs when?
  • A. A packet exceeds the egress link MTU and the Don't-Fragment bit is not set ✓
  • B. The TTL reaches zero
  • C. The header checksum fails
  • D. An ARP entry times out
Correct answer: A. A router fragments a too-large packet if it exceeds the outgoing MTU and DF is clear; otherwise it drops it.
IPv6 SLAAC relies on which mechanism to learn the network prefix?
  • A. ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages ✓
  • B. DHCPv4 offers
  • C. ARP requests
  • D. OSPFv2 LSAs
Correct answer: A. In SLAAC, hosts learn the prefix from ICMPv6 Router Advertisements and self-generate the address.
HSRP and VRRP both provide?
  • A. First-hop (default-gateway) redundancy ✓
  • B. Encrypted routing updates
  • C. Latency-based DNS resolution
  • D. VLAN trunk negotiation
Correct answer: A. Both are first-hop redundancy protocols presenting a virtual gateway IP for failover.
The TCP window scaling option is used to?
  • A. Allow receive windows larger than 65,535 bytes for high bandwidth-delay links ✓
  • B. Dynamically shrink the MTU
  • C. Encrypt the TCP payload
  • D. Disable fragmentation
Correct answer: A. Window scaling multiplies the 16-bit window field, enabling large windows needed on high-BDP paths.
In an MPLS network, forwarding decisions inside the core are based on?
  • A. Labels rather than a destination IP lookup ✓
  • B. The source MAC address
  • C. The TTL value only
  • D. DNS records
Correct answer: A. MPLS routers (LSRs) swap labels and forward by label, avoiding full IP route lookups per hop.
Route summarization primarily reduces?
  • A. The size of routing tables and routing update overhead ✓
  • B. End-to-end latency to zero
  • C. The number of broadcast domains
  • D. The switch MAC address table size
Correct answer: A. Aggregating contiguous prefixes shrinks routing tables and cuts update churn.
The DSCP field used for QoS marking resides in?
  • A. The IP header (the ToS/DS byte) ✓
  • B. The Ethernet frame trailer
  • C. The TCP header
  • D. The MAC header
Correct answer: A. DSCP occupies the upper 6 bits of the IP header's Differentiated Services (ToS) byte.

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Questions are original, written and independently verified for HireHire's role interview quizzes. They reflect the kind of knowledge Network Engineer interviews test, not any specific company's questions. HireHire maps live tech & IT jobs across India, updated regularly. Last updated: August 2026.